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Share some Palo Alto Networks Certifications PCNSA exam questions and answers below.
How many zones can an interface be assigned with a Palo Alto Networks firewall? 
A. two 
B. three 
C. four 
D. one 
Answer: D

Which two statements are correct about App-ID content updates? (Choose two.) 
A. Updated application content may change how security policy rules are enforced 
B. After an application content update, new applications must be manually classified prior to use 
C. Existing security policy rules are not affected by application content updates 
D. After an application content update, new applications are automatically identified and classified 
Answer: CD

Which option shows the attributes that are selectable when setting up application filters? 
A. Category, Subcategory, Technology, and Characteristic 
B. Category, Subcategory, Technology, Risk, and Characteristic 
C. Name, Category, Technology, Risk, and Characteristic 
D. Category, Subcategory, Risk, Standard Ports, and Technology 
Answer: B

Which User-ID mapping method should be used for an environment with clients that do not authenticate to Windows Active Directory? 
A. Windows session monitoring via a domain controller 
B. passive server monitoring using the Windows-based agent 
C. Captive Portal 
D. passive server monitoring using a PAN-OS integrated User-ID agent 
Answer: C

Which firewall plane provides configuration, logging, and reporting functions on a separate processor? 
A. control 
B. network processing 
C. data 
D. security processing 
Answer: A

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A cloud architect is designing a private cloud for an organization. The organization has no existing backup infrastructure. They want to offer consumers the ability to back up VM instances using image-based backups. 
What is a consideration when selecting a backup application for this environment? 
A. Backup application can be integrated with the selected CMP components 
B. Backup application enables consumers to restore the VMs to any point in time 
C. Hypervisor servers' hardware is on the backup application vendor's compatibility list 
D. Cloud gateway is used by the backup application to access the cloud based VMs 
Answer: A

What should be used when sizing memory for nodes of a HCI deployment? 
A. Total core count 
B. vCPU consumption 
C. VM memory consumption 
D. Host memory consumption 
Answer: D

What is a benefit of selecting a completely open source CMP solution? 
A. Full compatibility testing 
B. Availability of a proprietary API 
C. Lower software costs 
D. Enhanced integration with existing vendor solution 
Answer: C

An organization is planning to deploy CMP components for their private cloud environment. As a cloud architect, why would you recommend a SaaS-based CMP solution? 
A. Allows management of both private and public cloud resources using a legacy unified management tool 
B. Requires only a one-time investment and the organization has full control over the CMP solution 
C. Speeds up the initial deployment and reduces the complexity in managing the CMP solution 
D. Allows the organization to use low cost IT resources in order to run the CMP application 
Answer: C

What categories of cost are included in CAPEX? 
A. Annual license fees, software, maintenance, and upgrades 
B. Hardware, software, annual license fees, and maintenance 
C. Hardware, software, maintenance, and upgrades 
D. Hardware, software, installation, and decommissioning 
Answer: D

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What can help a Citrix Architect prepare to discuss time scales and resource requirements? 
A. Creating a high-level project plan. 
B. Meeting with each member of the project team to assign tasks. 
C. Designing the new environment. 
D. Setting expectations with the project’s key stakeholders. 
E. Identifying challenges associated with the project. 
Answer: A

A Citrix Architect has deployed NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) to monitor a high availability pair of NetScaler VPX devices. 
The architect needs to deploy automated configuration backup to meet the following requirements: 
- The configuration backup file must be protected using a password. 
- The configuration backup must be performed each day at 8:00 AM GMT. 
- The configuration backup must also be performed if any changes are made in the ns.conf file. 
- Once the transfer is successful, auto-delete the configuration file from the NMAS. 
Which SNMP trap will trigger the configuration file backup? 
A. netScalerConfigSave 
B. sysTotSaveConfigs 
C. netScalerConfigChange 
D. sysconfigSave 
Answer: A

Scenario: The Workspacelab team has configured their NetScaler Management and Analytics (NMAS) environment. A Citrix Architect needs to log on to the NMAS to check the settings. 
Which two authentication methods are supported to meet this requirement? (Choose two.) 
A. Certificate 
B. RADIUS 
C. TACACS 
D. Director 
E. SAML 
F. AAA 
Answer: BC

Scenario: A Citrix Architect has configured NetScaler Gateway integration with a XenApp environment to provide access to users from two domains: vendorlab.com and workslab.com. The Authentication method used is LDAP. 
Which two steps are required to achieve Single Sign-on StoreFront using a single store? (Choose two.) 
A. Configure Single sign-on domain in Session profile ‘userPrincipalName’. 
B. Do NOT configure SSO Name attribute in LDAP Profile. 
C. Do NOT configure sign-on domain in Session Profile. 
D. Configure SSO Name attribute to ‘userPrincipalName’ in LDAP Profile. 
Answer: BD

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a NetScaler deployment in Microsoft Azure. An Active-Passive NetScaler VPX pair will provide load balancing for three distinct web applications. 
The architect has identified the following requirements: 
- Minimize deployment costs where possible. 
- Provide dedicated bandwidth for each web application. 
- Provide a different public IP address for each web application. 
For this deployment, the architect should configure each NetScaler VPX machine to have ______ network interface(s) and configure IP address by using ________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence). 
A. 4; Port Address Translation 
B. 1; Network Address Translation 
C. 1; Port Address Translation 
D. 2; Network Address Translation 
E. 4; Network Address Translation 
F. 2; Port Address Translation 
Answer: C

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You are a system administrator for an organization that has Dynamics 365 for Sales and Dynamics 365 for Customer Service. A user who logs in to the Microsoft 365 portal sees only Dynamics 365 for Sales. 
You need to enable the user to see Dynamics 365 for Customer Service. 
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. 
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. 
A. In Dynamics 365 model driven apps, enable the features. 
B. In PowerApps, create the application. 
C. Type the URL of the web application for Dynamics 365 for Customer Service. 
D. Assign the correct security role to the user's ID 
E. Add the correct licensing to the user ID in Active Directory. 
Answer: A,D

You are an administrator in Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement apps. 
You need to create solution components using customization tools. 
Which two components can be included in a solution? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. 
A. audit logs 
B. sitemap 
C. team 
D. business unit 
E. global option sets 
Answer: A,E

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. 
The Customer Service Hub app is available on a desktop browser and on a mobile device. It can be used for managing cases and Knowledge articles. 
Review the bold text. If it makes the statement correct, select "No change is needed." If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. 
A. No change needed. 
B. optimizes viewing for desktop browsers only. 
C. is available on a desktop browser for case management, but not for managing knowledge articles. 
D. does not provide the ability to add an activity to a case on a mobile device. 
Answer: A

You need to use Microsoft Flow to perform data-management tasks when users interact with records in Dynamics 365. 
Which three types of triggers can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. 
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. 
A. on demand 
B. when a record is created 
C. on request 
D. when a record is updated 
E. when a record is deleted 
Answer: A,B,D

You need to select a Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement application to help your organization efficiently track, manage, and deliver project-based services. 
Which application should you select? 
A. Customer Service 
B. Field Service 
C. Project Service automation 
D. Sales 
Answer: B

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The HCS-Field-IVS certification is developed based on the skill requirements of channel engineers for specific positions. It focuses more on the professional capabilities of engineers in the application of Huawei video surveillance products and solutions, technologies, planning and design, engineering delivery, and tools, learning helps channel engineers better understand the professional capabilities of planning, designing, installing, configuring, and commissioning video surveillance products. The HCS-Field-IVS certification is intended for professional planning, design, commissioning, and maintenance of video surveillance products.

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HCS-Field-IVS H20-871 Key Points

1) Solution and product Overview

a) Overview of Video Surveillance Products and Solutions

b) Intelligent Cameras Introduction

c) Camera Hardware Introduction

d) VCN5X0 Product Introduction

e) VCN3020 Introduction

f) CloudIVS 3000 Product Description

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a) Camera Basic Operations

b) Survey, Installation, Selection, and Optimization Guide of Facial Checkpoint

c) Facial Checkpoint Image Parameters Commission Guide

d) Survey, Installation, Selection, and Optimization Guide of Checkpoint

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f) VCN Service Operations

g) VCN Service Maintenance

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1. What are the advantages of H.265 encoding relative to H.264 encoding? (Multiple Choice)

A. Same bandwidth, clearer picture quality and 1 times more transmission channels

B. Same picture quality, bandwidth and storage are saved in half

C. Same storage, 10 times more access roads or storage days

D. Higher compression ratio

Answer: ABD

2. Which of the following are the main technical indicators of the camera? (Multiple Choice)

A. Resolution

B. Sharpness

C. Minimum illumination

D. SNR

Answer: ABCD

3. What is the command to properly restart the DB under the command line?

A. /home/ivstool/bin/service.sh restart pgdb

B. /home/ivstool/bin/service.sh pgdb restart

C. /home/ivstool/bin/service.sh db restart

D. /home/ivstool/bin/service.sh restart db

Answer: A

4. What does the mandatory components that make up the Control Center video wall include? (Multiple Choice)

A. Large screen display

B. Decoder

C. Large screen controller

D. IVS client

Answer: ABD

5. When the camera site is installed, what are the materials required for power supply access installation? (Multiple Choice)

A. Lightning arrester

B. Equipment box

C. Voltage regulator

D. Network cable

Answer: ABC

6. What is the main difference between sensor CCD and CMOS? (Multiple Choice)

A. CCD sensitivity is higher in the same pixel and size

B. CMOS resolution is higher in the same size

C. High sensitivity of CCD

D. Higher manufacturing cost of CMOS

Answer: AC

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C1000-002 Exam Objectives Described Below.

Section 1 - Planning, Installation, and Migration     14%

Section 2 - Configuration        17%

Section 3 - Security      14%

Section 4 - Administration    15%

Section 5 - Availability        9%

Section 6 - Monitoring         9%

Section 7 - Performance Tuning       8%

Section 8 - Problem Determination     14%

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1.After completing an IBM MQ for z/OS installation and customization, how can a successful installation be verified?

A. Review the z/OS MQ SMF records.

B. Run the command runmqsc -installation_verify.

C. Put a test message on a newly created z/OS queue.

D. Use the MQ for z/OS installation verification programs (IVPs).

Answer: D

2.For MQ Advanced for distributed platforms, which two components are included? (Select two.)

A. MQ Appliance

B. Managed File Transfer

C. MessageSight

D. IBM MQ Internet Pass-Thru

E. Advanced Message Security

Answer: BE

3.An administrator is asked to forward all messages to queue ‘TEST.TEMP’ if the messages destined for ‘TEST.LOCAL’ end up on the dead letter queue.

Which rule in the dead letter handler rules table will enable the administrator to achieve this objective?

A. REASON(MQRC_Q_FULL) ACTION(FWD) FWDQ(&DESTQ) HEADER(NO)

B. REASON(*) ACTION(FWD) FWDQ(‘TEST.TEMP’) HEADER(NO) DESTQ(‘TEST.LOCAL’)

C. REASON(*) ACTION(RETRY) FWDQ(‘TEST.LOCAL’) HEADER(NO) INPUTQ(‘TEST.TEMP’)

D. REASON(MQRC_Q_FULL) ACTION(IGNORE) FWDQ(‘TEST.TEMP’) HEADER(NO) DESTQ (‘TEST.LOCAL’)

Answer: A

4.What is the purpose of the –s secretText parameter used in the prepareha and crthagrp commands on MQ Appliance?

A. To be used as the unique key for the appliances.

B. To be used to decide. In secret, which appliance will be the preferred appliance.

C. To generate a short-lived password used to create two keys, one for each appliance.

D. To generate a short-lived password used to set up on unique key for the appliances.

Answer: A

5.Which channel may be configured with a channel auto-definition exit?

A. Sender Channel

B. Receiver Channel

C. Requester Channel

D. Client-Connection Channel

Answer: A

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What is a major difference between NFSv3 and NFSv4.x? 
A. NFSv4.x is stateful, and NFSv3 is stateless. 
B. NFSv4.x requires an auxiliary protocol for status monitoring, and NFSv3 does not. 
C. NFSv4.x is stateless, and NFSv3 is stateful. 
D. NFSv4.x requires an auxiliary protocol for mounting, and NFSv3 does not. 
Answer: B

The root aggregate on your single-node ONTAP cluster failed. You have the configuration backups saved on your FTP server. 
In this scenario, which two steps are part of the recovery procedure? (Choose two.) 
A. Perform a Netboot using the configuration backup. 
B. Create a new root aggregate and set its ha_policy option to sfo. 
C. Boot into maintenance mode. 
D. Create a new root aggregate and set its ha_policy option to cfo. 
Answer: CD

Your customer has initiated several volume move commands to redistribute the workload in their 8-node cluster. To verify that this process is not affecting their client access, they were monitoring the network switches that provide client access, but they do not see the network load of the volume move command. 
In this scenario, what is the reason for the behavior? 
A. The volume move command uses the HA iWarp interconnect, not the client access switches. 
B. The volume move command uses copy offload protocol, so it does not show up when monitored. 
C. The volume move command uses the intercluster LIFs, not the data LIFs. 
D. The volume move command uses the cluster interconnect switches, not the client access switches. 
Answer: D

A customer mentions that their intercluster SnapMirror replication operations consistently take much longer than normal. While troubleshooting, you want to initiate a test SnapMirror session to collect performance data. 
How would you accomplish this task? 
A. Run the network test-path command to simulate a SnapMirror connection and record the latency/throughput data. 
B. View the active network connections to the node to see if there are a large number of active connections. 
C. Use the ifstat command to collect network performance data for the physical interface. 
D. Run the network statistics lif show command for the intercluster LIF to simulate a network connection. 
Answer: A

End users are complaining of high latency when accessing an ONTAP cluster. 
Which command helps you to determine whether there is a storage component that is contributing to this problem? 
A. qos statistics performance show 
B. qos statistics latency show 
C. sysstat -c 30 -M 1 
D. wafltop show -v -cpu -i 10 -c 5-n 6 
Answer: A

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